Episode 42 Osteoarthritis
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Intro Music: KI Instrumental (Rock Celtic) by Lyrium-2025
Outro Music: Hard Rock to Drive to Survive Adrenaline Sport by Alex Grohl
Courtesy of Pixabay under Creative Commons non-commercial use.
Produced by: Todd Fredricks DO MSS
Edited by: Todd Fredricks DO MSS
Answers for Episode 41 Hemorrhoids
Question 1:
A 45-year-old patient with grade III internal hemorrhoids is concerned about postoperative pain and urinary retention. The surgeon recommends a modified office-based procedure that uses negative pressure and an elastic coil instead of a traditional band. Which treatment is being described?
B. Modified rubber band ligation (RBL)
Question 2:
A patient with grade II hemorrhoids and a bleeding tendency is seeking a minimally invasive treatment with low risk of complications. The physician recommends a sclerosant that has shown high patient satisfaction but carries a rare risk of anaphylactic shock. Which agent is being described?
B. Polidocanol foam
Question 3:
A colorectal surgeon is evaluating treatment options for a patient with grade III hemorrhoids. The goal is to reduce postoperative pain, bleeding, and hospital stay. Which combination of procedures has been shown to achieve these outcomes more effectively than stapled hemorrhoidopexy (SH) alone?
C. SH with Doppler-guided hemorrhoidal artery ligation (DG-HAL)
Paper for Next Week:
Andrea Di Matteo and Paul Emery, “Rheumatoid arthritis: a review of the key clinical features and ongoing challenges of the disease,” Panminerva Medica, December 2024, Vol. 66, No. 4, pp. 427–442.
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